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I was noticing in my FB ads conversions on a specific ad.
Those ads have UTM tracking on them. When I checked analytics those UTM codes were showing 0 conversions.
So I was stumped as to why the $$ amounts / conversion were showing on my FB ad accounts.
Another one just happened so I quickly logged into my store dashboard and sure enough there is an order for the amount showing in my FB ads dashboard. So i had a dig around and noticed that the ad itself is showing to a 30 day audience (someone who visited my website in the past 30 days).
So it gets me thinking - does someone actually have to click on this ad to trigger a conversion? If FB is tracking them for up to 30 days that cookie will trigger if they make a purchase regardless if they click the ad or not. Meaning that they simply just have to visit the site and buy something and be a logged in FB user will trigger the conversion - is this correct?
If for example they arrive on my site directly or via an email I send out and they buy something then in FB ads the conversion is attributed to FB - however in analytics the attribution will be to the source of the visitor (directly or by a link in an email as per the above the example)
Anyone got any info on this? It appears that this is indeed the case from what I can see.
Those ads have UTM tracking on them. When I checked analytics those UTM codes were showing 0 conversions.
So I was stumped as to why the $$ amounts / conversion were showing on my FB ad accounts.
Another one just happened so I quickly logged into my store dashboard and sure enough there is an order for the amount showing in my FB ads dashboard. So i had a dig around and noticed that the ad itself is showing to a 30 day audience (someone who visited my website in the past 30 days).
So it gets me thinking - does someone actually have to click on this ad to trigger a conversion? If FB is tracking them for up to 30 days that cookie will trigger if they make a purchase regardless if they click the ad or not. Meaning that they simply just have to visit the site and buy something and be a logged in FB user will trigger the conversion - is this correct?
If for example they arrive on my site directly or via an email I send out and they buy something then in FB ads the conversion is attributed to FB - however in analytics the attribution will be to the source of the visitor (directly or by a link in an email as per the above the example)
Anyone got any info on this? It appears that this is indeed the case from what I can see.
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